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There is no human that won’t sacrifice in his entire life. It is either the price paid in youthful age or at old age but I think the former is better.

Olumayowa Bolujoko




2. Economics is the study of human behavior as it relates to the A. efficient allocation of resources B. production of goods C. operation of companies D. generation of income

A is correct. The central goal of economics is to ensure efficient allocation of scarce resources among competing ends

3. The downturn in the prices of shares on stock markets is a highlight of A. efficient allocation of resources B. the invisible hand C. the regulatory nature of the market D. generation of income

B is correct  the invisible hand refers to the price mechanism which is the forces of demand and supply on the stock market the interplay of demand and supply determine share prices  the higher the demand for the share the better the prospect of an increase in share prices

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4 if X bar = 6 and N =6, determine the value of Ɛfx A. 36 B. 1 C. 12 D. 72

A is correct

Click on the link for comprehensive solution

5. The standard deviation of a set of data is A. Always measured from the mode B. The most representative of averages C. Always measured from incomplete data D. A measure of dispersion

D is correct. In economics we have different tools for forecasting. We divide this into measure of location or measure of cereal tendency (this include the mean, the median and the mode), the measure of dispersion or variability (which include mean deviation, variance and standard deviation) and the measure of partition (quartile, percentile and dencile)

6. The mean is the best measure of central tendency because it.  A. Is not affected by extreme values in a data B. Is a midpoint value in an array of data C. Is a balancing point in an observation D. Can be calculated from incomplete data

C is correct

7. The most popular sizes of dresses and shoes are determined by the A. Range B . Mean C. Mode D. Median

 C is correct. Mode is the most frequently occurring number.

8. If the demand for a good is more elastic than its supply the tax burden is borne A. Equally by consumers and producers B. More BT producers C. More by consumers D. More by retailers and producers

 B is correct. Upload that video

9. If the price of a commodity with elastic  demand increases, the revenue accruing to the producer will A. Double B. Increase C. Be constant D. Decrease

D is correct .when a good has elastic demand it means that the consumer can do without it because there are alternatives. Therefore any attempt to raise prices will lead to lower demand for the commodity

10. An excess demand for beans will result from A. An increase in the price of beans B. An increase in the supply of beans C. A decrease in the price of beans D. A decrease in the supply of beans

D is correct. Upload that excess demand video

 11. Consumer surplus tends to be higher when demand is A. Perfectly elastic B. Elastic C. Inelastic D. Unitary elastic

B is correct. Recall that when demand is elastic the consumer bears less of the tax burden therefore he benefits more

12. Then law if diminishing marginal utility explains why A. The slope of normal demand curve is negative B. An abnormal demand curve slopes upwards C. The slope of a normal demand curve is positive D. The consumption of inferior goods increase with income

B is correct. Note: any time you see the word ordinality/ordinal theory, the first thing that should come to mind is order means ranking. The ordinal school believes that utility cannot be measured in monetary terms rather preferences are ranked. The school of thought that believes utility can be measured in monetary terms is the cardinal school

13. The derivation of the demand curve is based on the law of diminishing marginal utility I. E the higher the quantity the lower the utility accruing to the consumer.

A is correct .

14.. if a consumer plans to spend 120k on four oranges but spent 80k, his consumer surplus is A. N 1.50  B. N 0.40 C. N 1.00 D. N 2.00

B is correct  

 Click on the link below

15. A set of factors that can shift the supply curve are changes in A. Weather , price and  technology B. Technology , weather and population C. Technology, price and taste D. Population, price and taste

B is correct. Recall that a shift in supply or demand is caused by other factors affecting demand or supply other than the price of the commodity (commodity own price)

16. If the coefficient of price elasticity of supply is greater than one, the supply is said to be A. Perfectly elastic B. Fairly elastic  C. Infinitely elastic D. Fairly elastic

 B is correct.

17. If a commodity X is a by-product of commodity Y, this implies that both commodities are A. In competitive supply B. In composite supply C. Jointly supplied D. In excess supply

 C is correct

18.  In perfect competition, price is determined by the A. Government B. Sellers C. Buyers D. Market

D is correct. A perfect market is a market structure in which market participants (buyers absolutely sellers) cannot influence the prevailing market price. In other words the market mechanism determine the market price

19. In order room reduce hardship faced by consumers due to high prices, government can introduce A. Maximum prices B. Commodity boards C. Minimum prices D. Price control boards

A is correct. The price celling is used to control prices of commodity this is what we call price control or legislation (the act of the government fixing the price of essential commodities)

20. Average product is less than marginal product when A. There is constant return to scale B. There is increasing returns to scale C. There is decreasing returns to scale D. Diminishing returns set in

C is correct. Although option B is external economies of scale but it is assumed that the firm enjoys from its own activities first (internal economies of scale)

21. A firm enjoying economies of scale is said to be A. Reducing average cost as production increases B. Benefitting from the activities of other firms C. Maximizing profits as production increases D. Having an upward sloping average cost curve

C is correct. Note if the average cost curve is rising the firm is experiencing discontinues of scale. Ordinarily the cost is supposed to reduce as production increases

22. The riding portion of the long run average cost curve of a firm is an indication that is experiencing A. Increasing efficiency B. Economies of scale C. Diseconomies of scale D. increasing marginal returns

 A is correct

23. An industry’s supply curve is more likely to be elastic when firms are A. Enjoy free entry and exit B. Operating full capacity C. Operating below capacity D. Maximizing profits

 A is correct

24. One of the characteristics of monopolistic competition is that A. There is mobility of factors of production B. No single seller dominates the market C. Consumers have perfect knowledge of price D. The firm are price takers

B is correct. Note monopolistic competition combines the features of perfect market and imperfect market

25. The demand curve for factors of production A. Is perfectly elastic B. Slopes upwards C. Slopes downwards D. is perfectly inelastic

C is correct. Recall that a downward sloping demand curve indicates that the higher the lower the volume of productive factors that will be used

26. An agreement among firms on price and segmentation is termed A. Cartel B. Collusion C. Haggling D. Specialization

B is correct. Collusion is an agreement between firms on the volume of outputs (quota), price and other relevant determinants   necessary for the actualization of their respective goals

27. In national uncomfortable accounting, tax is determined by the A. Level of income B. Level of consumption C. Level of investment D. Rate of savings

A is correct. Taxes are imposed on income often than not. A tax on consumption is to encourage more savings

28. A decrease in aggregate spending in an economy will ultimately lead to A. Boom B. Inflation C. Deflation D. Recession

C is correct when aggregate demand (AD) is less than aggregate supply (AD <AS) we have deflation and when AD is greater than AS we have inflationary tendencies

29. If MPC is 0.7 while government expenditure increased by N150m, the equilibrium national income is A. N214 million B. N45 million C. N150 million D. N500 million

D is correct  click on the link below

30. The function of money which makes division of labour possible is it A. Unit of account B. Store of value C. Medium of exchange D. Standard of deferred of payment

C is correct

31. By buying treasury bill, the central bank of Nigeria intends to A. increase money supply in the economy B. Reduce the cash reserve ratio for banks C. Reduce money supply in the economy D. Increase the capital base of commercial banks

A is correct. Note if the central bank buys securities from the public they will pay for it and the public will have more money with them. However, if the central bank sells to the public they will be collecting (mopping up) the money in circulation and the money with the public will reduce

32. The velocity of money is represented as A. money supply/ real GDP B. nominal GDP/ money C. real GDP/ money D. real GDP/ nominal GDP

B is correct. The original formula is GDP = velocity × money supply. Note that velocity of money is the rate are which money changes hand (move from one person’s hand to another)

33. One function of commercial bank is A. Maintaining stable price on the economy B. Regulating monetary policies C. Granting loans to customers D. Issuing bank notes and coins

 C is correct. Note that all other functions mentioned above are the duties of the central bank

34. A strategy for curving unemployment is to A. Implement government stabilization  policy B. Increases taxes and decrease government expenditure  C. Increase government expenditure and  decrease taxes D. Ensure even distribution of job opportunities

C is correct. when the government embark on projects the populace benefit from it because they would be engaged in achieving this goal

35. In Nigeria, the huge public debt is as a result of A. Balanced budgeting B. Deficit budgeting C. Surplus budgeting D. Zero budgeting

 B is correct. Budget deficit occurs when government expenditure is more than government revenue. The difference between this is the public debt

36. National development plans in Nigeria fail mainly because of A. Over dependence on foreign aids B. Inadequate funding of projects C. Poor implementation strategies D. Shortage of skilled manpower

C is correct. Implementation problem is a major cog in the wheel of Nigeria’s development

37. The ultimate aim of agricultural policies in Nigeria is to achieve A. Food sufficiency B. Industrialization C. Full employment D. Industrial capacity utilization

A is correct

38. Government can boost agricultural output is Nigeria primarily by A. Embarking on buffer stock programmes B. Placing embargo on food importation C. Granting subsidies on farm inputs D. Placing farmers on monthly income

C is correct. Buffer stock are stock that are kept in other to meet swings in demand or future demand they are also called safety stock

39. Localization of industries refers to the A. Spread of firms producing different product B. Siting of industries near the market C. Concentration of firms of an industry D. Siting of firms producing different products

C is correct. Location of industry is the siting of an industry in a particular place while localization is the concentration of an industry in a particular area. For example most Nigerian commercial banks headquarters are located in Marina, Lagos.

40. in developing countries, government influence the location of industries in order to A. Spread development B. Redistribute wealth C. Encourage entrepreneurs D. Encourage industries to earn high profits

A is correct

41. A disadvantage of Nigeria’s dependence on imported petroleum products is the A. Instability in the demand for the products B. Dominance of multinational firms C. Instability in the supply of the product D. Poor maintenance of the refineries

 C is correct

42 . The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is A. Twenty B. Five C. Seven D. Infinite

D is correct.  For a public limited liability company there must be a minimum of 7 shareholders and no maximum (infinite) and for a private limited liability company there must be a minimum of 2 shareholders and a maximum of fifty shareholders

43. The primary motive for an individual engaging in production is to A. Make profit B. Satisfy basic humans C. Redistribute wealth D. Puts inputs into use

B is correct

44 . What is the population growth rate in 2003? A. 33.3% B. 11.0% C. 20% D. 50.0%

D is correct

45. The percentage of working population in 2002 is A.50% B. 8% C. 25% D. 80%

D is correct

46. One of the characteristics of free trade zone is A. Common tariff against non-member countries B. Different trade policies of non-member countries C. Free factor mobility within zone D. Harmonization trade among member countries

D is correct

47. If Nigeria imports vehicles from Japan, the transaction will appear as a A. Debit on Japan‘s balance of payments B. Credit on Japan’s  balance of payment C. Credit on Nigeria’s  balance of payment D. Credit on Nigeria’s balance of payment

B is correct. Recall your trial balance idea debit all expenses and credit all income

48. One of the objectives of ADB is to A. Provide subsidies on imported goods member counties B. Mobilize short -term loans C. Promote economic and social development of members countries D. Provide technical assistance to only poor member countries

C is correct

49. The choice of the method of production in an economy is determined by the A. Level of income B. Level of technical know-how C. Rare of population growth D. Availability of natural resources

B is correct. There are two techniques of production which are labour intensive technique and capital intensive technique

50. The amount of labour hired depends on the A. Number of skilled labour available B. Skill of labour C. Marginal productivity of labour D. Price of other inputs

 C is correct. Hiring of labour depends on the additional output it can help produce.



1. Democracy means a system of government in which A. the majority rules B. the minority    rules C. there is no party system D. the people rule E. none of the above.

The answer is A. Democracy is divided into direct and indirect.Direct democracy involves citizens of a country converging on a place to take decision. While indirect democracy is also known as representative democracy which involves people voting for those that will represent them and take decision on their behalf.

2. A constitution is federal if A. it provides for a president system B. it is unwritten C. it is not unitary D. the central and component units or authorities are co-ordinated and equal E. there is a division of powers between a central and number of other component authorities.

The answer is E. A Federal Constitution is which allows governmental powers and function to be shared or divided between the Federal government and the component units (state & local government).

3. The executive is A. a committee of the legislature B. the body that makes the law C. the body that executes the policies of government D. the highest organ of government E. the body which enforces the law.

The answer is C. The executive arm of government implements the law or you say they enforce the law – Note security agencies belong to the executive arm of government.

4. The judiciary is A. an arm of the Executive B. the body which makes law C. a body of lawyers D. the body which interprets the law E. none of the above.

The answer is D. The Judiciary is hierarchical in natural and the head of the Judiciary is the chief justice of Nigeria (CJN) who is appointed by the president on the recommendation of the National judicial council and his appointment is approved by the senate. Note that the power of approval in Nigeria is with the National Assembly (NASS) but for appointment it is executive to the senate.

5. The ‘Separation of powers’ means the same thing as A. a presidential system of government B. checks and balances C. the rule of law D. supremacy of the judiciary E. none of the above.

The answer is E. Note Checks and balance is not the same as separation of power. They just go hand in hand. Separation of power states that governmental powers and functions should be shared among the arms of government while Checks and Balances is a doctrine that one arm of government should check the activities of the other arms of government.

6. Rights are A. claims which the law allows B. claims against the states. C. claims against other individuals. D. claims which are natural to men. E. what are written in the constitution.

The answer is A. Note there are some rights that one cannot seek redress in court when violated these categories of rights are called none justiciable rights.

7. Pressure groups are A. organisations which want to overthrow the government B. organisation which seek to influence the polices of government C. associations of people who share the same ideology D. political parties E. religion orders.

The answer is B. Pressure group are organizations that seek to influence government policies. It is political parties that intend to control the government.

8. A Cabinet system of government is practised in A. the USSR B. the USA C. the Peoples Republic of China D. the United Kingdom E. North Korea.

The answer is D. The cabinet system is the same thing as the westminister’s system in which the head of state is a different person from the head of government.

9. The citizen’s obligations are A. what the government orders B. duties the individual imposes on himself. C. what the law requires of individual D. what the military decrees E. what political parties demand of their members.

The answer is C.

10. An electoral system is the system which governs A. the appointment of the Pope B. how people vote C. the conduct of elections D. the appointment of cabinet ministers E. the appointment of judges.

The answer is C.

11. An unwritten constitution is one which A. is not subject to judicial review B. is only partially written C. is not written at all D. is made up solely of a set of convention. E. none of the above.

The answer is B. Unwritten constitution is one in which the body of rules is not contained or cannot be found in a single document.

12. Delegated legislation is legislation A. which is not submitted to Parliament B. made by judicial tribunals C. made by a Minister acting under an Act of Parliament D. made by a local government E. made by a parastatal.

The answer is C. Delegated legislation is to lessen the burden of the legislature.

13. Before colonial rule, Yoruba traditional rulers were appointed by A. the people acting through their representatives B. Ogboni C. Ifa (oracle) priests D. Oduduwa E. Kingmakers.

The answer is E. The Kingmakers were seven (7) chiefs who represented the 7 wards that made up the Oyo Empire. They were called Oyomesi.

14. The first political party, properly so-called, was formed in Nigeria in A. 1916 B. 1923 C. 1944 D. 1948 E. 1951.

The answer is B. The name of the party was NNDP.

15. The Lol Cadres, a major factor in the constitutional development of the French colonial territories, was introduced in A. 1940 B. 1946 C. 1950 D. 1956 E. 1960.

The answer is D.

16. The Coussey Commission Report laid the ground work for the eventual independence of A. Nigeria B. Gambia C. Gold Coast (Ghana) D. Sierra Leone E. Liberia.

The answer is C.

17. The (former) Western Region of Nigeria became internally self-governing in A. 1955 B. 1956 C. 1957 D. 1958 E. 1959.

The answer is C. Note this is one of the aftermath of the motion for self government moved by Chief Anthony Enahoro a member of the action group in 1953. Note also that the Eastern region was granted also in 1957.

18. The first Pan African conference was  held in A. Paris B. Brussels C. London D. New York E. Manchester.

The answer is A. The 1st Pa African conference was in Paris (1919), 2nd (London, 1921), 3rd (London, 1923), 4th (New York, 1927), 5th (Manchester, 1945), 6th (Dares Salaam, 1974), 7th (Kampala, 1994), and Accra (2014).

19. The Public Service Commission (Nigeria) is responsible for the appointment of all A. Judges of the High Court B. officials of public corporations C. civil servants D. military personnel E. university teachers.

The answer is C.

20. Constitutional cases in Nigeria can only be raised in the first instance in A. the Supreme Court B. the High Courts C. the Court of Appeal D. Sharia Court of Appeal E. none of the above.

The answer is B. Note the Supreme Court is the final destination of all cases on qualified to be heard at the Supreme Court.

21. Which of the following would act for the Head of State when he is out of the country A. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B. The Chief of Staff, Army C. The Chief of Staff, Supreme Military Headquarters D. The Chief of Staff, Air Force E. The General Officer Commanding, First Division.

The answer is C. This is similar to the chief of defense staff who is the head of the military, he could be a Naval staff, an Air staff or a solder.

22. To raise funds, local government can levy A. import duties B. income taxes C. excise duties D. rates E. profits tax.

The answer is D.

23. The Economics Commission for Africa is an agency of A. the OAU B. the Commonwealth C. the United Nations D. the OCAM E. the Africa Development Bank.

The answer is C. The ECA was established in 1958 to promote the industrial development of Nigeria. The head quarter is in Addis Ababa.

24. Nigeria is not a member of A. the OAU B. the Security Council of the UN C. the African Development Bank D. the Commonwealth E. OCAM.

The answer is E. OCAM is the abbreviation of organization commune Africaine et Malgache which is an association of Francophone states of Africa similar to the commonwealth nations.

25. The primary function of political party is to A. oppose the government B. aggregate interest C. mobilise public opinion D. provide welfare for their members E. provides support for the military.

The answer is B.    

26. The OAU was formed in A. 1946 B. 1956 C. 1960 D. 1963 E. 1965.

The answer is D. Note the name was changed to African Union from the organization of African unity in 2002, July 9.

27. All members of the newly constituted local government councils in Nigeria were A. directly elected B. indirectly elected C. appointed by the state governors D. appointed by the Head of State E. none of the above.

The answer is A. The Council is the legislative arm of the local government.

28. Which of the following is true as a major function of elections A. The elections serve the purpose of recruitment of leaders to office in a modern state B. The elections give the people a chance to eliminate opponents who are in office C. They are means of testing the popularity of politicians D.  Politicians use elections as tools to deceive the populace E. Elections are means by which politicians keep themselves in power.

The answer is A.

29. The first Governor-General of Nigeria was A. Lord Lugard B. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Sir James Robertson D. (the late) Major-General Aguiyi-Ironsi E. The Oni Ife.

The answer is A. Note: Lugard was a former governor of Northern Nigeria protectorate.

30. The Supreme policy-making organ in the Organisation of African Unity is A. the Council of Ministers B. the Assembly of Heads of State and Government C. the General Secretariat D. specialised  Commissions E. none of the above.

The answer is B.

31. In which of these organs of the United Nations Organisation is veto power exercised by some countries? A. The World Health Organisation B. The Security Council C. General Assembly D. The UN Committee against Apartheid E. The International Court of Justice.

The answer is B. Veto power is the right of the Big five (Britain, France, Russia, China, and USA) to reject a resolution (a course of action).

32. In a Federal System (such as Nigeria) the Local Governments are directly responsible A. to the Federal or Central Government B. to the State Government C. to the Federal and State Government D. to no other level of government E. to any level of government which can provide money for its programmes.

The answer is B. Note: this is the reason why the state government have commissioner for local government affairs & chieftaincy title.

33. The 1946 Constitutions in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana) were the results of A. Pressures from nationalist within the colonies B. Pressures from the British Government C. Pressures by the United States of America D. Pressures.

The answer is A. Note NCNC sent a delegation in 1947 to protest against the Richard constitution.

34. If the rights of the individual are violated or threatened, where can he go for redress? A. The Executive branch of government B. The Legislative branch of government C. The Local Government Council D. The Judicial branch of government E. The Ministry of Internal or Home Affairs.

The answer is D.

35.  In the Presidential System of Government, the president is elected to office by A. the Cabinet B. the Parliament or Legislature C. Military D. the people through direct elections E. the political party

The answer is D.

36. The Military take over power from politicians in West African Countries A. when politicians have become corrupt, and are reckless in their use of power B. when there is a breakdown of law and order in the country C. for reasons which touch on the interest of the military D. because of the personal ambitions of some politicians E. all of the above.

The answer is E.

37. By establishing public corporations, governments are trying to A. eliminate private enterprise B. compete with private enterprises C. render crucial service to the public in area which the civil service cannot effectively handle D. make quick profit at the expense of the people E. B and D       

The answer is C. A public corporation is a large scale business organization established by an act of parliament to provide essential services to members of the public. It should be noted that the public corporation is financed by tax payers’ money.

38. The Constitution of any given country must provide for A. the distribution of powers B. the rights and duties of the individual C. the rule of law D. none of the above E. A, B and C.

The answer is E.

39. In a modern state, pressure groups find that the most effective way of achievement their purposes is by A. causing trouble among the populace B. influencing decisions of government C. forming political parties D. rigging elections to office of the state E. A and C.

The answer is E. Pressure group that result to violence in order to influence government policies is known as anomic pressure group.

40. Which of the following would consider the most famous among the leaders of nationalist movements in Nigeria? A. Kwame Nkrumah B. General Olusegun Obasanjo C. Herbert Macaulay D. Anthony Enahoro E. Dauda Adegbenro.

The answer is C. Herbert Macaulay is the father of Nigeria Nationalism.

41. The idea of ‘collective responsibility’ in the Executive branch of government means that A. no single member of the Executive can take any responsible decision B. a member of the Executive has no way out of decisions made in that body C. a member of the Executive cannot publicly criticise decisions collectively made without first resigning D. responsible within the Executive is not unilateral E. parliament must ratify Executive decisions collectively reached.       

The answer is C.

42. Indirect rule, as practiced by the British in their west Africa colonies A. did not attempt to reform existing traditional institutions B. was over glorified and expedient nonsense C satisfied neither the rulers nor the ruled D. had nothing in common with the reality of French rule in their colonies E. meant ruling through existing rulers and attempted to check their excesses

The answer is E. Note that Indirect rule unlike the French policy of assimilation did not attempt to abolish local institutions.

43. The French idea of assimilation as applied in their colonies A. was to make Frenchmen out of African subjects B. would have allowed to produce more Frenchmen in the colonies than France itself C. recognized real value in traditional African culture and was merely aimed at upgrading it D. produced nothing but African puppets in the colonies E. was abandoned within a couple of years of its operation

The answer is A.

44. The most remarkable thing about the post independence development of Gambia is A. that the country has been swallowed up by the much bigger country of Senegal B. the relatively untarnished reputation of Sir Dauda Jawara C. that without reliance on overwhelming force, the government has remained in power and tolerated operation D. the uniquely roboust economy which the government has succeeded in establishing for the country and distributed fairly among its people E. the existence of opposition parties

The answer is C. Gambia has been characterized by long rulership. The first president was Sir Dauda Jawara (1970 – 1994), Yahya Jammeh was president from 1994 – 2017 until is booting out and replacement by Adama Barrow the winner of the 2017 elections.

45. The dominant idea behind the establishment of the Organization of African Unity is A. that Africa must unite B. to show the world that Africa can also do what latin America and asia have done C. to provide a frame work and opportunity for cooperation on common African problems D. to promote economic development of Africa E. to have its secretary general coordinate the foreign policies of member states

The answer is C.

46. The nationalist movements in Nigeria and the Gold Coast (Ghana) A. were different from each other in all respects B.  produced the same result in both countries C. were dominated by traditional rulers D. influenced each other significantly E. were led by philosopher kings

The answer is D. Note: Kwame Nkrumah was the foremost Ghanaian in the struggle for independence and he was the first Ghanaian president.

47. The new local government reforms in Nigeria A. seek to establish uniformity in type, purpose and functions of local authorities B. make traditional rulers more powerful than before C. are a waste of time and the federal government’s money D. promote unity but allow for some diversity in the structure of the local government E. would definitely establish clean and efficient government at the local level.

The answer is A.

48. The treaty establishing the Economic Community of west African states (ECOWAS) was A. concluded in Lome (Togo) in December, 1976 after hard and extensive negotiations B. designed as the main pillar on which an eventual African common market would be built C. the brain child of Togo and Ghana D. signed in Lagos in May, 1975 to promote trade and other economic cooperation in the region as a whole E. to immediately eliminate tariffs and other barriers to trade among members

The answer is D. Note in the formation of Ecowas Gen. Yakubu Gowon and Gnassigbe Eyadema were the two leaders that champion it.

49. The principle of universal adult suffrage refers to A. the right of all adult people to vote B. the structure of political parties C. the legal nature of a constitution D. the right to free speech E. All of the above

The answer is A.

50. A constituency A. is the same as a legislature B. is part of the campaign process C. is an area or district in which the inhabitants can send a representative to parliament D. is an important part of every monarchy E. consists of party executives and free-wheelers  

The answer is C.                  



1. If the government is interested in raising the highest in the raising the highest revenue from a tax system, then for any two commodities A. it is better to tax one whose demand is more elastic is better to tax one whose demand is more inelastic C. revenue will be the same for both commodities D. it is not possible to say which will yield higher revenue E. government cannot make which revenue from taxing commodities

A is correct. The government most times is not interested in hampering the level of consumption because they are interested in the welfare of the citizen. They would rather prefer to tax a commodity whose in demand elastic since the tax burden would be would be shared by both the consumer and the producer but producer will bear more of the burden.

2. Production in economics occurs when A. a commodity or service is sold B. utility is created or added C. a commodity is manufactured D. raw materials are produced or extracted from the mines E. all of these

E is correct. Recall that production involves three industries namely; primary industry ( they extract raw materials), secondary industry ( this include construction and manufacturing) and tertiary industry (they render services).

3. From an economic point of view, an activity does not have a cost when A. someone else pays for it B.the returns are greater than costs C. the choice involves giving up nothing D. the government pays for it E. it is paid from a gift

C is correct. Recall that cost in economics is the opportunity cost/true cost/real cost which are wants left unsatisfied because of scarce resources resources. Note that an accountant is interested in the money cost while an economist is interested in the opportunity cost

4. Which would you mot consider an agro-based industry in Nigeria? A. a diary enterprise producing milk B. a yam flour mill C. a poultry industry D. a fertilizer plant E. none of the above

E is correct. All options are related to agriculture

5. Price control indicates the following A. price is a fixed equilibrium level B. price is fixed above equilibrium level C. price is not fixed but is determined by the supply and demand D. price is fixed below equilibrium level E. none of the above

Dis correct. Since he government want to guarantee the consumption of the consumers. Thy usually fix price at a price lower than the market clearing price (equilibrium price).

6. The terms of trade are said to be favorable only if A. value of total exports equals value of total imports B. value of merchandise exports is greater than value of merchandise imports C. there are no balance of payments problem D. there is an imports E. foreign exchange reserves do not change

D is correct. For terms of trade to be favourable recall that the formula is PX /PI × 100. Note it must be greater than 100% and the only way this is achievable is when index of export is greater than import.

7. Which is dominant form of tax in Nigeria? A. direct tax B. indirect tax C. inheritance tax D. E. Value personal income tax E. value added tax

A is correct. Direct taxes are an important source of government revenue.

8. Which is not a function of central banks in West Africa? A. dealing in foreign exchange B. issuing of currencies C. accepting deposits from private customers D. acting as government bank E. acting as bankers’ bank

C is correct. The central bank does not transact with individuals regardless of their level of wealth.

9. Which is not a cause of high population growth in Nigeria? A. family planning unit of Nigeria B. improved medical facilities C. reduction in death rate D. improved hygiene E. increased birth rate

 A is correct. Family planning is a method of controlling exploding population t  decisively putting limits to the number of children a family should have by couples involved. Note population study is sometimes referred to as demographic studies.

10.  In the figure we can describe the demand as A. perfectly elastic B. having unit elasticity C. perfectly inelastic D. fairly elastic E. all of the above

A video link

11. Commercial banks can create money in the following ways A. by issuing coins and paper money B. by borrowing money from banks abroad C. by receiving deposits from individuals D. by printing money on the instructions of the central bank E. none of the above

E is correct. Commercial banks create money by advancing loans.

12. Utility of a commodity means A. its usefulness B. power to satisfy a want C. price of the commodity D. satisfaction derived from the production of commodity E. its adaptability

D is correct. Note that utility is not the same s usefulness. A commodity may not be useful but possess utility  

13. International trade arises because A. one country has more abundant resources than the other country B. one country has the technology to produce the commodity whilst the other has not C. one country has maximum comparative advantage or minimum comparative disadvantage in the production of a commodity over the other country D. one country has more manpower to produce the commodity than the other country E. all of the above

C is correct. The central ideology behind international trade is that one country can produce a commodity at a cheaper rate (have comparative advantage over others) and the cost of producing the other products is costly.

14. By balance of visible trade we mean A. import and export of goods B. import and export of services C. balance of current account in the balance of payments D. balance of capital account in the balance of payments E. all of these

A is correct. The word visible means that it can be seen, touched and felt there are also called merchandise. It must be noted that invisible trade are basically services.

15. Nigeria earns the major part of her foreign exchange from the export of A. manpower to other countries B. crude oil C. petroleum products D. groundnuts and cotton E. palm oil and cocoa

B is correct. Crude oil is the driver (mainstay) of the Nigerian economy. Note that Nigeria is a mono –economy ( an economy which is lowly diversified and depends on one major source of income).

16. In the above diagram, supply and market conditions of sugar in a Nigerian market are given. An indirect tax of 10 kobo per kg is imposed. It will be paid A. wholly by the suppliers B. wholly by the consumer C. partly by the supplier and partly by the consumer D. wholly by the middlemen E. partly by the stockholder and partly by consumer

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17. Which would you not consider an advantage of A. one- man businesses B. limited liability C. quick decisions making D. personal contact with customers E. none of the above

C is correct. Since the sole proprietorship is the alfa and omega of the business he mostly makes all decisions on the spot.

18. The budget of Nigeria will be in deficit if A. revenue expenditure exceeds the revenue receipts B. capital expenditure exceeds the capital receipts C. revenue and capital expenditure exceeds the revenue and capital receipts D. the government is spending more than its income E. all of the above

E is correct. The budget is a fiscal document showing government estimated revenue and proposed expenditure during a period of time usually a year. There are three categories of budget. Balanced budget (this when estimated revenue and proposed expenditure of the government are equal or the difference between government revenue and expenditure is zero), budget surplus (this is when the government revenue is greater than the proposed expenditure of the government) and budget deficit (this is when the government revenue is less than the proposed expenditure).

19. An economic problem arises when A. manufactured goods are in short supply B. money is in short supply C. buyers are many D. sellers are few E. scarcity and choice are involved

E is correct. The fundamental problem of any economy is the scarcity of resources, this brings about the problem of allocating them (choice)

20. By subsistence production mean A. goods and services are produced for consumption only B. goods and services are sold to others C. raw materials are produced in the country D. goods and services are produced for the market E. none of these

A is correct. Subsistence means just a little for survival rather than having in abundance for sales.

21. Division of labour means that A. the labour is divided into different sections B. the work is divided into different parts to be completed by each labourer C. production is completed by different departments of a factory D. commodities are produced at different times by a single labourer E. the labour force in the country is not united

B is correct. Recall that division of labour was propounded by Adam Smith and this is the major reason behind his portrait is on the 20 pounds note.

22. A limited liability company is owned by A. an individual B. two or more partners C. shareholders D. government E. a bank

C is correct. Shareholders are the owners of the business.

23. If the price of a commodity falls and the quantity purchased of it does not rise, the commodity can be described as A. normal B. abnormal C. inferior D. superior E. Scarce

B is correct. Recall that abnormal demand is a demand pattern that does not conform to the basic law of demand. For this question the lower the price the lower the quantity demanded which is a complete reversal of the law of demand.

24. Mr. A earns N300 and pays N15 in tax. Mr. B earns N100and pays N100 and pays N6 in tax. This tax system can be described as A. proportional tax B. progressive tax C. competitive tax D. excise tax E. regressive tax

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25. Which sector can you say is growing the fastest in the Nigerian economy? A. agriculture B. industry C. education D. transport E. labour

C is correct.

26. Which is not a method of raising capital funds in Nigeria? A. borrowing from abroad B. internal borrowing C. Nigerianization of foreign companies D. gifts from abroad E. selling government bond

C is correct. This question relates to public debt. There are two types of public debt namely; domestic debt and foreign (external debt).

27. If a firm doubles its output and its costs increases by 60%, the firm is experiencing A. increasing costs B. economies of scale C. decreasing returns D. decreasing costs E. none of the above

A is correct. Note economies of scale is the advantage a firm enjoys. There two types of economies of scale namely; internal economies of scale which is the advantage a firm derives from its expansion. External economies of scale is the advantage a firm derives as a result of the existence of other firms around it. When a firm incurs extra cost from expansion which is not covered by the returns, there is internal diseconomies of scale and an if a firm suffer losses or incurs extra cost as a result of the existence of other firms around it we say the firm is experiencing external diseconomies of scale.

28. The fundamental problem of Economics is A. money B. poverty C. unemployment D. the scarcity of the resources relative to wants E. inflation  

D is correct. Economics is useless if there was no scarcity. It is because of scarcity that exist that made the study of and understanding of economics relevant.

29. If you do not have to give up anything in order to get a particular thing, then its opportunity cost is A. zero B. not measurable C. its price in money D. infinite E. equal to one

A is correct. Economists are interested in the alternatives forgone rather than the money cost. (the actual amount spent to acquire a product)

30. Which of the following is the standard concept for measuring and analyzing population growth? A. the rate of natural increase B. the net migration C. the rate of population increase D. the fertility rate E. all of the above

E is correct. Note: Net migration is the difference between immigration (movement into a country) and emigration (movement out of the country). The natural growth rate is the growth rate that is not affected by external forces/factors or the uninduced growth rate. Note also that when net migration is positive immigration > emigration and when it is negative immigration < emigration.

31. When we draw a market demand curve, we A. ignore tastes, income and other prices B. assume that taste, income and other prices do not matter C. assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices change in the same direction as prices D. assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices remain constant  E. both A and B above

D is correct. Did you know that it is incomplete to state the law of demand as “the higher the price the higher the quantity demanded and vice versa”. This because the affix; “ all other things being equal (ceteris paribus)” must be included because the law of demand is based on certain assumptions such as the above.

32. Capital earns income because A. it is productive B. it is expensive C. it is always cheaper to substitute capital for labour D. it is technically more efficient than labour E. both A and B above

A is correct. Recall that the economist definition of capital is the wealth set aside in the creation of further wealth. This asserts the fact that capital is productive.

33. In a free market economy, the rationing of scarce goods is done principally by A. the government B. business organization C. the price mechanism D. consumer E. both A and B above

C is correct. The price mechanism is a system that allocates resources among competing ends. Note that the price mechanism is also called the price system.

34. A disadvantage of the corporate form of business is the A. risk of the owners of loss of personal effect if the business should fail B. ability of the corporation raise financial resources C. limited life span of the corporation D. problems presented by separation of ownership from control E. none of the above

D is correct. The shareholders are the owners of the business but the board of directors are responsible for managing (includes planning, organizing, coordinating controlling) the business.

35. The value of money depends primarily on A. the gold backing of the currency B. the gold backing of both currency and deposits C. the general price level D. government decree that it is legal tender E. none of the above

C is correct. The general price level is the average price of commodities in a country. If the general price level increases we say inflation has set in, inflation itself erodes (decreases) the value of money. In other words if price level increases, inflation will rise and the value of money will fall.

36. A commercial bank is able to create money A. by printing it B. by maintaining reserves C. by creating a demand deposit as it gives a new loan D. by issuing cheques to depositors E. by borrowing from the central bank

C is correct. The money deposited in the bank is not idle.  It is given out in loans for investment purposes which in turn generates more money for the bank, this is what is known as money creation. In summary the central bank issues currency while the commercial banks create money.

37. Which one of the following is not one of the balance of payments entries? A. the current account B. foreign reserves C. import and export duties D. short term capital E. long term capital

B is correct.

38. Which of the following taxes appear generally progressive in nature? A. sales taxes B. the personal income tax C. property tax D. corporation taxes E. none of the above

B is correct. Most countries adopt the Pay as You Earn (P.A.Y.E) which is the higher you earn the higher you pay in taxes.

39. in subsistence economy A. there is no shortage of goods and services B. the state is sole owner of resources C. production is largely oriented towards consumption in the rural sector D. there is no exchange of goods and services E. women predominate in all economic activities

C is correct. Subsistence production means producing for consumption rather than sales.

40. Which of the following is a correct definition of equilibrium price? A. a price which covers production cost B. a price which maximizes entrepreneur’s profits C. a price at which the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied D. a price at which competitive firm is at equilibrium E. a price which stabilizes farmers’ income

C is correct. The equilibrium price is the price where quantity demanded of a commodity is equals to the quantity supplied of the commodity.

41. in a normal (typical) demand schedule, the quantity demanded is A. directly related to price B. inversely related to price C. independent of price D. proportionally related to supply E. solely dependent on haggling skill

B is correct. Recall that under the law of demand if price increases, demand falls. This implies that price and quantity are moving in opposite direction i.e QD α 1/P.  For supply on the other hand, the higher the price, the higher the quantity supplied. This implies that price and supply move in the same direction QS α P. Note it can also be said that demand and price have a negative relationship so I can state the law of demand as “ other things being equal, demand is inversely related to price”. And supply on the other hand supply has positive relationship with price. So we can state the law of supply as “ supply and price are directly related”.

42. Division of labour is limited by the A. availability of raw materials B. size of the labour force C. size of the firm D. absolute size of the country’s population E. per capita income and number of potential buyers

E is correct. This option relates to the size of the market ( number of potential buyers).

43. In a limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by A. debenture holder’s B. company executives C. ordinary shareholders D. preference shareholders E. board of directors

C is correct. The ordinary shareholders are the real owners of the business. They receive dividend last and are the last to settled in the event of liquidation.

44. Which of the following is not a function of Nigerian commercial banks? A. acceptance of deposits B. lending of money C. investment in securities D. issue of currency E. selling and buying of travelers cheques

D is correct. Issuance of currency is the function of the central bank.

45. In Nigeria, cheques are not money because A. their use in confined to business houses B. there are no banks I rural areas C. they are no legal tender D. they are not generally acceptable as a medium of exchange E. most Nigerians cannot identify them

C is correct. Cheques are not money but can serve the purpose of money but can serve the purpose of money. However, the seller of a product is not compelled to accept it this makes it not to be a legal tender.

46. Indicate which of the following are invisible trade in a country’s country balance of payments A. oil exports and imports B. Gold and foreign reserves C. foreign investments D. dividends and profits E. expenditure on shipping and tourism

E is correct. Recall that invisible trade are services.

47. Which of the following is not a measure for controlling inflation? A. reduction in money supply B. wage restraints and wages freeze C. reduction in taxes and increases in government spending D. price control E. credit transactions

C is correct. Wage restraint and freezing has to do with specific persons and not the entire populace is affected, this has almost zero effect on inflation control.

48. Which of the following is not a determinant of changes in supply? A. change in the costs of production B. technical progress C. weather D. changes in the number of producers E. changes in the number of buyers

E is correct.

49. The marginal physical product of labour is A. the output of labour unaided by machinery B. the extra revenue from the output of one additional worker C. the difference in the output of two workers D. additional output achieved when one extra worker is added to fixed account of other factors E. none of the above

D is correct. Note anytime you see the word marginal ensure you look out for is either additional or extra

50. One of the disadvantages of division of labour is that A. there is saving of time B. it results in workers acquiring greater skill at their jobs C . There is a greater risk of unemployment D. it makes it possible the use of machinery E. it makes the worker less fatigued by his work

C is correct. Division of labour promotes labour intensive technique more which is close to saying more employment opportunity.



Government 1986

1. Aristocracy is the system of government in which the few rule for

A. their own benefit      B.       the benefit of all   C. the benefit of their friends   D. the benefit of a few

The answer is B. Aristocracy is a government formed by the nobles (intelligent people).

2. The two primary elements in politics are

A. war and peace B. order and conflict C. patriotism and economic sabotage   D.nationalism and freedom.

The answer is B

3. A nation state is synonymous with a

A. sovereign state B. dependent territory   C. nation D. political community

The answer is A. A nation is any group of people occupying a definite geographical territory which share homogeneous characteristics (language, customs) The Word homogeneous means similar. It should be noted that a nation lacks sovereignty.

4. Legislative supremacy exists in

A. Britain   B. France   C. Soviet Union   D. Nigeria.

The answer is A. Britain practice parliamentary system of government where the legislature and the executive is a fused to some degree because the members of the executive are from the legislature.

5. Presidentialism is a system of government in which

A. there is elected head of State who exercises actual executive powers

B. the head of State is not the chief executive

C. the executive functions are the responsibility of the entire members of a cabinet

D. all members of cabinet must also be members of the legislature.

The answer is A. a presidential system of government is one which there is a fusion of the functions of the head of state and that of the head of government.

6. The main function of the upper chamber in a parliamentary system of government is to A.initiate new legislation     B. Executive laws C.acts as a check on the lower chamber the activities of the lower chamber

The answer is C. This question is related to Bicameralism which refers to a type of legislature. The essence of this to ensure there in no hasty decision making and to check the excesses of one another.

7. The federal constitution which concedes to the components units the right to secede is that of

A. the United States       B. Australia   C. Brazil   D. the Soviet Union

The answer is B. The system of government practiced in Australia is a federal parliamentary constitutional monarchy. Australia is made up of six British former colonies and the head of state is the Queen of England who is represented by the governor general.

8.The principle of two levels of government in a country is called

A. the parliamentary system B. dictatorship   C. nationalism   D. federalism

The answer is D. Note federal is based on the work of K.C where, depending on the country there could be three tiers or two tier federal systems. Nigeria is a three level tier federal system having the federal, state and the local government.

9. In a cabinet system, the executive is appointed from the

A. legislature    B.    Opposition    C.  Upper house   D.         weaker party in the coalition

The answer is A. The executive is formed by choosing law makers and it is headed by a prime minister.

10.An  important advantage of creating more constituents units in a federal state is to

A. enhance the politicians gain political power

B.People’s participation in government    

C.enable ambitious make the state gain more power.

D.curb the powers of the federal government.

B is correct. The essence of creating more constituent unit is to bring government closer to the people or encourage participation in government.

11. Under the presidential system A. the party with the majority of seats forms the Executive B. there is the principle of collective responsibility C. the president may come from any of the parties D. the constitution must be unwritten

The answer is C. The president contest on his own and can emerge from any political party.

12. The major function of the legislative assembly is to

A. debate on committee reports Represent the people C. make laws D.    vote on bills

The answer is C. Other functions of the legislature is approval of appointment and the budget, oversight function etc.

13.In a parliamentary system who ensures that members are in the House to vote on major issues?  The A. party leader             B. speaker of the house C.       clerk of the House   D. Whip

The answer is C. The Clerk inaugurates the new assembly, conducts the elections, keep the documents for the assembly and also files notice of meeting. the responsibility of the whip is to ensure orderliness in the legislature. read about sine die

14.A system in which no single person serves as the chief executive is known as A. republican B. revolutionary C. Collegial  D. parliamentary

The answer is C. A Collegiate executive is a type of executive head by a committee.

15.The idea of democracy was first associated with the

A.Romans    B.  Persians   C.  Greeks    D.   Egyptians

The answer is C. It should be noted that the type of democracy practized in Greece was direct democracy.

16. According to Marxist theory, those who live by selling their labour are referred to as the

A. bourgeoisie      B. proletariats C. feudal lords D.slaves

The answer is B. Kal Marx is the father figure behind socialism. He believed that capitalism was exploitative and therefore divided it into groups the owners of factors of production (bourgeoisie) and the workers who sell their labour (proletariats).

17. A social system in which power is derived from control over land is called

A. oligarchy B. Feudalism C. socialism D. presidentialism

The answer is B. It should be noted that feudalism was practised in Medieval Europe.

18.A system of government in which power derives from total control of  the instruments of force is called

A.monarchy B.oligarchy C.capitalismD.fascism

The answer is D. Fascism was a totalitarian regime practized in Italy.

19. Which of the following ideologies emphasizes the abolition of goverment and law?

A. Totalitarianism         B. Communism C. Anarchism D.socialism

The answer is C. Anarchy is the absence of government or a state of lawlessness. The idea behind anarchy is that the government has refused to live up to its expectation and order.

20. The writ of habeas corpus is applied to secure the

A. right to personal liberty      B. independence of the judiciary C.  freedom of the press   D. right to own private property.

The answer is A. Note a writ is a written order issued by the court writ of habeas corpus is an order asking a detainee to be presented before the court for trial.

21.Which of the following is NOT a fundamental human right in Nigeria?

A. Right to education B. Right to personal liberty C. Freedom of thought D. Freedom of conscience

The answer is A.

22.Proportional representation is recommended because it

A. favours small parties simple to operate C.leads to liberal democracy D.preserves the party system

The answer is C.

23. A system of voting in which the voters are asked a ‘yes’ or ‘no’ question on a major issue is called

A. ‘first past the post’ B. a referendum C. an absolute majority D. an indirect election.

The answer is B. Note: an alternative way of asking the question by say that a type of election in which people vote for issues rather than candidates is known as.

24.A political manifesto is a document which outlines

A. a country’s development B. a  party’s programme C.the  national policy   D.  an ethnic interest

The answer is B. A Manifesto is a document/print blue which shows what a political party will do in power.

25.One argument against a multi-party system is the

A.inability to develop the nation B. encouragement of diverse opinion and opposition   C.         ability to attract  foreign investment   D. banning of pressure groups.

The answer is B. Multiparty system allows varying opinions and large opposition to the government.

26. Pre-colonial Igbo society was

A. centralized B. acephalous C. feudal  D. capitalist

The answer is B. A cephalous means lacking a head or paramount rulers. The Igbos didn’t have a King; the function of the traditional institution was carried out by the village assembly majorly. Note: when we say the Igbos didn’t have a king we do not mean all but a sizable number didn’t have a king.

27. Which of the following ethnic groups had centralised administration in pre-colonial Nigeria?

A.Ibibio    B.    Ijaw     C.  Tiv     D.   Hausa

The answer is D. The Hausa – Fulani Pre-Colonial system was highly centralized with their administrative headquarters in Sokoto and Guwandu.

28.In which of the following ethnic groups was  pre-colonial political structure NOT infuenced by the Islamic culture?

A. Kanuri      B. Nupe    C. Tiv     D. Fulani

The answer is C. The Tivs   are mostly Christians are found mainly in Benue state of Nigeria (North central Nigeria/Middle belt).

29. The British Government revoked the charter of the Royal Niger Company and took over the direct administration of Nigeria in

A.1861   B.  1900    C. 1906   D. 1914

The answer is B. Note that the alternative way of asking this question is when colonialism started fully in Africa.

30. The Minorities Commission appointed in 1957 was headed by

A.Sir Henry Willink     B. Justice Udo Udoma C.Chief Festus Okotie-Eboh D.Sir Allan Lennox-Boyd

The answer is A. Willink Commission was established to look into minority issues in Nigeria about unequal treatment in the three main regions of Nigeria.

31. The Zikist Movement was popular for its

A.philosophy of non-violence B.promotion of mass literacy C.militant nationalism D.encouragement of multi-party system

The answer is C. Zikist movement was militant in nature.

32.Which of the following sets of factors contributed to the development of nationalism in  Nigeria?

A.Racial discrimination and oppression B.Corruption and ethnicity C. Parternalism and indirect rule D.Election malpractices and party differences

The answer is A.

33. Which  constitution was created to legislate for the Lagos Colony and the Southern Provinces?

A.The Richards Consittution B.The Clifford Constitution C.The Lyttleton   Constitution D.The Macpherson  Constitution

The answer is B.  Note: the Clifford constitution allowed for elective positions in Lagos and the Southern part of the country.

34. Judges in Nigeria enjoys security of tenure A.if  they are appointed by the president B.if they have the support of the Nigerian Bar Association C.if they are of good behaviour D.during the life of the government which appoints them.

The answer is C. Note: The Independent should be Independent and must not be in Influence by other arms of government in the discharge of their duty.

35. Before the 1963 Constitution, the highest court of appeal for Nigeria was the

A. Supreme Court  B. Federal High Court of Appeal    C. Privy Council D. Federal High Court

The answer is C. Note: The Supreme Court replaced the Privy Council in 1963 which use to be the final court of appeal.

36. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Police Force in Nigeria?

A .Traffic control    B. Arrest of criminals C.      Making of laws  D. Prosecution of criminals

The answer is C. It is the duty of the legislature to make laws.

37..In Nigeria, the highest court for Muslims is the A. Alkali Court B. Sharia Court of Appeal Supreme Court

D.  Upper Area Court

The answer is C. The Supreme Court is the highest court in Nigeria.

38.Who was appointed by the federal government of Nigeria as the administrator of western region in 1962?

A. Dr. M.A. Majekodunmi     B. Chief Odeleye Fadaunsi   C. Chief S.L. Akintola  D. Chief Remi Fani Kayode

The answer is A. Dr. M.A Majekodunmi was the minister of health and was appointed the administrator of Western region as a result of the state emergency declared.

39.The head of state in the first republic of Nigeria was

A. an executive president        B. a nominal president   C. a party leader  D.      a nominee of the whole country.

The answer is B.

40. Which of the following parties formed the opposition in the House of Representatives during Nigerian first republic

A.NCNC and NEPU   B.  AG  and  UMBC  C.NPC and NNPC  D. NCNC and MDF

The answer is B. UMBC means the United Middle Belt Congress.

41. The main objectives of the Public Service Review Commission headed by Chief Jerome Udoji was to make the Nigerian public service A.         less corrupt    B.   More attractive financially   C. more efficient and result-oriented

D. superior to the private sector.

The answer is C.

42.Local governments in Nigeria receive the bulk of their financial resources from

A. the state government B.  The federal government C. rates and taxes D. local investment projects.

The answer is B.

43.The term ‘Chief-in-Council,’ in Nigeria means that the Chief A. is elected by the council   B. is superior to  the council C. cannot oppose the decision of the council D. is nominated by the government.

The answer is C. This Council is made up of a traditional ruler and other headmen who take decisions was collectively taken and acted open.

44. Traditional rulers under the 1976 Local Government Reforms had

A.executive powers    B.  Chief-in-council status C. limited powers         D. legislative powers.

The answer is B. Chief in council means that the traditional rulers were not dictators.

45. Nigeria is NOT a member of A.  the Commonwealth      B.        OPEC   C.ECOWAS     D.      NATO

The answer is D. NATO means North Atlantic treaty organization it is also called North Atlantic Alliance.

46. The greatest achievement of  nationalist movement in Africa is the

A. Unity of Africa States B. love and peace among African states C. sovereignty of most African States D. economic independence of African States.

The answer is C. Nationalist Struggle was aimed at gaining Independence.

47.The administrative headquarters of  O.A.U. is in

A. Addis Ababa   B. Lagos  C. Accra           D. Nairobi

The answer is A.

48.The World Health Organisation is an agency of

A. The E.E.C.       B. NATO   C. ECOWAS  D. The U.N.O.

The answer is D.

49.The organ of the United Nations primarily responsible for maintaining international peace and security is the

A.General Assembly   B. Security Council C .International Court of Justice   D. Economic and Social Council

The answer is B. You could say the Security Council is the military arm of the United Nations.    

50.Which of these groups of African leaders is closely associated with the formation of the O.A.U.? A.  Haile Selassie, Abubakar Tafwa Balewa, William Tubman    B.   Abubakar Tafawa Balewa, Jean Bokassa, Kwame Nkrumah   C. Kwame Nkrumah, Nmamdi Azikwe, Jomo Kenyatta.    D. Julius Nyerere, Kwame Nkrumah, Haille Selassie.

The answer is C.

Government 1984

Government 1984

  1. In a presidential system of government the Executive
    A. its own laws only
    B..legislates all binding laws
    C. Makes laws for the National Assembly
    D. Forms the government
    E. Executes all anti-government plotters.
    The answer is D. Although option a looks like the answer but it is too narrow. The executive doesn’t even make laws except for situations of delegated legislation.
  2. A Constitution is a legal document
    A. drawn up by lawyers
    B. enacted by military decree
    C. forming the basis upon which a government rules the country
    D. which must not be altered by any succeeding government
    E. only likely to succeed in a country where there is union government
    The answer is C. A constitution is a body of rules and regulations that govern the Conducts or activities of the governed and governors in a country.
  3. One features of a totalitarian State is the existence of
    A.a single recognised party B. Pressure groups C. opposition groups D. a colonial power E fierce political rivalry

The answer is A. In a totalitarian state there is usually one party recognised by law or by the Conducts of the ruling party by eliminating them

  1. A system in which a few powerful and rich nobles own land which is hired out to the poor people to farm is called
    A. Feudalism B. co-operatives C. socialism D. Communism E. Communalism
    The answer is A. Feudalism is a government practised in meadavisl us basrd on a reciprocal relationship between the lord if the manor and the vassals or peasants where the lord gives out land (manor or fief) to the vassals and the vassals reciprocate with military services in times of war.
  2. The principle of check and balances is necessary because it
    A. prevents government from becoming dictatorial
    B. prevents the Executives from functioning
    C. makes the Executives stronger than the other organs
    D. makes the three organs hate each other
    E. leaves each organ of government independent of the Judiciary.

The answer is A. Checks and balances is a doctrine that stipulates that one arm of government should monitor the activities of the other arms of government to ensure that there is no abuse of power.

  1. When a constitution is difficult to amend we say it is
    A..federal B. unitary C. written D. fragile E. rigid.
    The answer is E. The difference a rigid and a flexible constitution is the ease of amendment for the former it is difficult but for the latter it is easy. It should however be noted that the fact that we say it is easy to amend doesn’t mean there are no challenges at all what we mean is that the procedure of amendment is not so tedious or cumbersome.
  2. A political authority which maintains sovereign power over a specific geographical area is termed
    A. a nation B. the nation-state C. the state D. Nationalism E. Imperialism

The answer is C. Note that the major difference between a nation and a state is sovereignty. A state has sovereignty and a nation lacks sovereignty. A nation share homogeneous or common characteristics ( language, customs and traditions) while a state shares heterogeneous characteristics. If a nation has sovereignty we call it a nation-state

  1. A government in which control of ultimate power is by a few who rule in their own selfish interests is classified as
    A. a democracy B. a dictatorship
    C. an aristocracy D. a monarchy
    E. an oligarchy
    The answer is E. Oligarchy is a government by the few and most times for the few except for aristocracy and theocracy
  2. The most basic property of pressure groups which differentiates them from political parties is that they
    A. are not as interested in politics
    B. do not have permanent organisations
    C. do not seek to influence public opinion
    D. do not support candidates in elections
    E. do not nominate candidates as their own official representatives
    The answer is C. Check 1978 I explained this in details
  3. In a presidential system of government, ministers are
    A. collectively responsible to the Senate
    B. collectively responsible to the president
    C. individually responsible to the president
    D. individually responsible to no one
    E. individually and collectively responsible to the electorate
    The answer is C. Collective responsibility is to a parliamentary system while individual responsibility is to the presidential system. Collective responsibility refers to a situation in which a member of the cabinet action is binding on members of the cabinet while in individual responsibility means that every member of the cabinet is responsible for his own actions or inactions I.e if the president commits a gross misconduct only he will be impeached or punished and if a minister is culpable only he resigns or sacked. But a parliamentary system all the ministers and the prime minister will resign.
  4. The principal organs of government are
    a. Legislature, the Public Service and Judiciary
    b. Political Parties, the Executive and the Judiciary
    c. Executive, the Legislature and the Public Corporation
    d. Legislature the Executive and the judiciary
    e. Judiciary, the Local Government and the legislature
    The answer is D. Note that organs, branches and arms of government mean the same thing and we are talking about the ezecutive, Legislature and the judiciary
  5. The three FUNDAMENTAL rights of citizens are
    A. salvation, property, freedom of thoughts
    B. employment, property and social security
    C. life, liberty and property
    D. free education, peaceable assembly and freedom of thought
    E. freedom of movement, association and religion
    Thanks answer is C. The fundament human rights are in the united nations declaration and it’s is enshrined. In the constitution of all member nations which Nigeria is a member of.
  6. In a democracy, franchise is given to all
    a. resident adults
    b. Citizens

c. citizens except members of the armed forces
d. loyal party members
e. qualified adult citizens.
The answer is E. The word qualified is the most important when defining franchise. Qualified explains the fact that there are certain criteria that must be fulfilled before one can exercise his franchise. Some of which include meeting the age limit etc.

  1. The citizenship of a country may be acquired by an individual through
    a. Decolonization
    B. nomination
    C. nationalization
    D. neutralization
    E. naturalization
    The answer is E. Note that naturalization involves an alien or foreigner appkying to become the citizen of a country. In Nigeria a person must have been resident for 15 years before he can be considered and must be of good conduct.
  2. Which of the following is NOT a public corporation in Nigeria?
    A. Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board
    B. Nigerian Steel Development Authority
    C. Nigerian National Oil Corporation
    D. Nigeria National Shipping Line
    E. Nigerian Railway Corporation
    The answer is A. JAMB is an agency and not a public corporation. A public corporation is a large scale business organization which is established by an act of parliament to render essential services to members of the public
  3. Government means the machinery established by a state to manage the affairs of the
    A. Rulers B. aliens
    C. civil servant D workers and
    peasants E. People
    The answer is E. The government refers to a group of people that manage the affairs of a state which include the people
  4. The judicial organ of government is the body which
    A. the law B. makes the law
    C. punishes law makers D. interprets the law
    E. rewards law makers

The answer is D. The judiciary interprete and adjudicate the law. Adjudicate means they make decision in a case having thoroughly gone through the provisions of the law and the merits and demerits of the case

  1. A constitutionally defined set of individual rights which governments are obliged to protect constitutes
    A. Statutory rights B. equity rights C. customary rights D. civil rights
    E. natural rights.

The answer is D.

  1. An electoral districts is a
    A. Pooling booth B. constituency C. ward D. local government area
    E. subsidiary of the state.

The answer is B. A ward is the smallest unit of representation in a country and it is represented by a councilor. A pooling booth is a cubicle where voters cast their ballot. A pooling unit is the voting unit in an election. A ward can be divided into various pooling units.

  1. In a parliamentary system of government, ministers are
    A. collectively responsible to parliament
    B. not members of the legislature
    C. appointed by a two-thirds majority of the legislature
    D. representative of various interests in the country
    E. chosen from the Upper House.
    The answer is A. We have fully discussed this earlier
  2. A fascist regime is both
    A. Fair and legitimate B. response and responsible
    C. representative and accountable D. democratic and constitutional
    E. authoritarian and totalitarian.
    The answer is E. Fascist regime was practised in Italy under Benito Mussolini and it was dictatorial
  3. Capitalism often encourages
    a. public ownership of all forms of enterprises
    b. a centrally planned economy
    c. private ownership of the means of production
    d. anarchy
    e. . deconcentration of political and economic powers in the same hands

The answer is C. Capitalism central ideology is private ownership of property

  1. Citizens legally qualified to vote for parliamentary candidates form
    A. a ward B. the electorate
    C.a member of the House of Assembly
    D. A Trade Union Congress E. political parties.
    The answer is B. The electorates are the voters
  2. Elections among candidates from the same party before the final elections are called
    A. running mates B. electoral colleges
    C. party conventions D.
    E. second ballots.

The answer is D. A primary is conducted to chose the flag bearer of the party in the general elections

  1. With whom is fascism associated?
    A. Adolf Hitler B. Karl Marx
    C. John Locke D. Benito Mussolini
    E. Joseph Stalin
    The answer is D. Fascism was practised in Italy
  2. of the following was NOT the responsiblitiy of the Federal Electoral Commission in Nigeria?
    A. supervision of polling
    B. compilation of Electoral register
    C. delimitation of constituencies
    D. counting and publication of election results
    E. swearing in of members of the Houses of Assembly.
    The answer is E.
    27.which of the following is NOT a civic obligations of every Nigerian citizen?
    a. Freedom of conscience and religion
    b. Obedience to laws
    c. Payments of taxes
    d. Voting by adults
    e. Respect for the national flag and anthems.
    The answer is A. Option A is related to the right of the citizen
  3. The deliberative organ of the U.N.O. is the
    a. Security Council
    b. General Assembly
    c. Economic and Social Council
    d. Secretariat
    e. International Court of Justice.
    The answer is B. This is where decisions are taken.
  4. first black African State to gain political indepen dence from a colonial power was
    A. Nigeria B. Liberia C. Ghana
    D. Ethiopia E. Guinea
    The answer is B. Ethiopia was never colonised
  5. major conflict that threatened the existence of the O.A.U. as an international organization from 1982-3 was the conflict
    A. in Chad
    B. between Namibia and South Africa
    C. between the Polisario Front and Morrocco
    D. in Angola
    E. between Somalia and Ethiopia.
    The answer is C. first started in Nigeria in 1923 because the Constitution of 1922 granted
    a. independence
    B. . self-government
    C. C.dominion status
    D. elective principle
    E. decolonization
    The answer is D.
  6. which of the U.N.O. can impose mandatory sanctions on any of its members?
    A. The General Assembly
    B. The Security Council
    C. The Secretariat
    D. The Economic and Social Council
    E. International Court of Justice.
    The answer is B. The security council is made up of five permanent members which have veto power.
  7. A historic feature of the Legislative Council that met in 1923 was that for the first time
    i. included official members who were Nigerians
    b. included only British officials
    c. acted in a deliberative capacity
    d. included elected African members
    e. legislated for the whole country
    The answer is D. Clifford constitution allowed Africans to be elected for the first time
  8. Richards’ constitution
    a. Abolished the elective principle in choosing
    of the Legislative Council
    b. amalgamated the northern and southern groups of provinces
    c. Established a central legislative council
    d. abolished regional assemblies
    e. abolished the system of indirect rule
    The answer is C. This is one of the reasons that we say Richards constitution laid the foundation for federalism
  9. military was last in power in Nigeria between
    A. 1954 and 1960 B. 1960 and 1966 C. 1966 and 1975 D. 1966 and 1979
    F. 1979 and 1983.
    The answer is D. This is what is being referred to as 13 years of military interregnum.
  10. Which of the following was NOT established by the 1979 Nigerian Constitution?
    A. Police Service Commission
    B. National Universities Commission
    C. Federal Electoral Commission
    D. National Population Commission
    E. National Economic Council
    The answer is B.
  11. which of these groups did Nigeria belong before the formation of the O.A.U?
    a. Brazaville group
    b. The Monrovia group
    c. The Casablanca group
    d. The West Africa group
    e. The O.P.E.C group
    The answer is B. The Monrovia group were peaceful in their agitation for Independence
  12. international organization formed after the Second World War to guarantee international peace and security is called
    A. The European Common Market
    B. The British Commonwealth of Nations
    C. The League of Nations
    D. The United Nations Organization
    E. The World Bank
    The answer is D. Note that the league of nations was formed to prevent the outbreak of a second world war.
  13. The two parties which formed the coalition government in 1959 were the
    A. N.C.N.C. and the A. G.
    B. N.P.C. and the N.C.N.C.
    C. N.P.C. and the A.G
    D. P.R.P and the U.P.G.A E. N.P.C. and the N.N.A.
    E. N.P.C and N.N.A
    The answer is B. NCNC was Nnamdi Azikiwe’s party and NPC was Tafawa Balewa’s party
  14. The1953 motion that Nigeria should become independent in 1956 was moved by

. a Chief Anthony Enahoro
b. Ahmadu Bello
c.Obafemi Awolowo
d. Nnamdi Azikiwe
e. James Robertson

The answer is A. Enahoro was a member of A.G and he moved the motion in should be noted that this was the remote cause if the Kano riot of 1953.
41.Southern Nigeria was divided into Eastern and Western Provinces for administrative purposes in
A.1935 B. 1937 C. 1939
D. 1941 E. 1945
The answer is E.
42.Under what constitution did the Supreme Court become the highest Court of Appeal in Nigeria?
A. Macpherson’s Consititution
B. Clifford’s Constitution
C. Richard’s Constitution
D. The 1963 Constitution
E. The 1979 Consittution
The answer is D. The supreme court replaced the privy council in Britain which use to be the final court of appeal in 1963.Constitution which introduced the ministerial system into the Nigerian Political system is the
A. Richard’s Constitution
B. Lyttleton Constitution
C. Macpherson constitution
D. Independence Constitution
E. Republican constitution
The answer is C.

44.Minorities Commission appointed in Nigeria in
1957 recommended that
a. more states should be created in the Federation
b. no more states should be created before independence
c. Nigeria should revert to a unitary structure of government
d. the Federal Legislature should legislate for the minority areas
e. all the minority areas should constitute one state.
The answer is B.

45.second military coup d’etat in Nigeria took place on A. January 15, 1966 B. October 1, 1966
C. July, 29, 1966 D. July 29, 1975
E. February 13, 1976.
The answer is C. This could claimed the life of the first military head of state of Nigeria J.T.U Aguyi Ironsi. Option A is the day of the first coup. Option D is the day Gen Gowon was areas removed while attending an O.A.U submit in Kampala, Uganda.

46.To be elected President of Nigeria, the 1979 Constitution states that one must have attained the age of
A. 21 years B. 35 years
C. 50 years D. 60 years
E. 65 years
The answer is B.

47.Which of the following international organisations was in existence before the outbrteak of the Second World War?
B. A. O.A.U. B. The League of Nations C.The UNO
. D. The Commonwealth of Nations E. ECOWAS
The answer is B.

48.Rates are generally collected in Nigeria by
A. the State Ministry of Finance
B. the Department of Inland Revenue
C. the Emirate or Traditional Council
D. the Local Government Council
E. Presidential Liaison officers
The answer is D. This a source of revenue go the government
49 electoral district for a local government election is a
A.constituiency B. local government area
C. polling booth D. ward E. market
The answer is A.

50.All the following are organs of the O.A.U. EXCEPT
a. The commission on Mediation, Conciliation and Arbitration
b. The Council of Ministers
c. The General Secretariat
d. The Economic Commission for Africa
e. The Assembly of Heads of State and Government.

The answer is D. ECA is a specialised organ of the united nations

Government 1983

  1. Parliamentary system of government?
    A Ministers are usually members of parliament
    B. the Prime Minister is politically responsible to the parliament
    C. the Head of State is the powerful organ of government
    D. the Head of Government may advise the Head of State to dissolve parliament
    E. the Party in opposition provides the Shadow Government.
    The answer is C. The shadow cabinet is the official opposition in a parliamentary system of government. The parliamentary system is also called the cabinet system or Westminster’s system
  2. Capitalism is an economic system in which
    A.the economy of the State is centrally planned and controlled
    Private persons are permitted to undertake enterprises
    C.accumulatation of private property is forbidden
    D.that means of production are owned and controlled by the State
    E.all big industries and the land are publicly owned for common good.
    The answer is C. a capitalist system is an economic system in which most of the means of production and distribution of goods and services is owned by private individuals. It should be noted that the most central ideology behind capitalism is private ownership of property. This is also called free market economy
  3. The process of depriving persons of the right of voting is called
    A enfranchisement B disqualification
    C dismissal D prohibition
    E disenfranchisement.
    The answer is E. disenfranchisement is the denial of the right to vote or to be voted for in an election. Note that disenfranchisement only occurs when the candidate or the voter has done everything humanly possible to exercise their franchise
  4. Bicameralism refers to
    A. a one chamber legislature
    B. the process of voting in the legislature
    C. the upper chamber in a legislature
    D. a two chamber legislature
    E. legislature in all sovereign States.
    The answer is D. there are two types of legislature. Unicameral legislature which is a situation in which there is only one law making body in the country and Bicameral legislature which is two houses of the legislature for the country. See the link
  5. The principle of the separation of powers implies that the three main organs of government work
    A. separately
    B. independently and co-operatively
    C. against one another
    D. Reluctantly and gradually for the executive E together in the interest of other nations.
    The answer is B. the principle of separation of power states that governmental powers and functions should be shared among the three branches of government. In other words they should function independently but cooperatively for smooth governance
  6. The main function of the judiciary is to
    A. serve as the watchdog of the Executive
    B. enact laws
    C. execute the laws of the land
    D. interpret the laws
    E. Protect the interest of accused persons.
    The answer is D. the Nigerian judiciary is hierarchical and it is headed by the Chief Justice of Nigeria
  7. A totalitarian government is
    a. a government that aspires to control every aspect of a citizen’s life
    b. a government for the masses
    c. a government of the people, by the people, and for the people
    d. a weak government E controlled by the rich
    The answer is A. this is similar to authoritarianism which allows some degree of political freedom
  8. An unwritten consititution operates in A. Guinea B U.S.A. C Great Britain
    D China E Nigeria.
    The answer is C. an unwritten constitution is one in which the body of rules and regulations that govern the actions/conducts of the governed and governors is not contained in a single
  9. A sovereign state is one
    a. whose constitution can only be changed by a military government
    b. where its citizens can speak without fear or favour
    c. in which sovereignty is invested in the military
    d. whose citizens are free to evade responsibility
    e. whose government decisions are made independent of sovereign interference
    The answer is E. sovereignty is the ability of a state to control its affairs without external interference. Note political sovereignty is vested in the electorate
  10. Representative Democracy is best characterized by
    a. free elections and proper register of voters
    b. proper constituencies and a real choice of candidates
    c. a politically educated electorate D representation only for the poor E. rule by the interest groups.nt c
    The answer is B. there are two types of democracy: direct and indirect democracy. The direct democracy is one in which the citizens converge on a place to take decisions, this was practised in the ancient Greece and it was the first type of democracy. The indirect democracy involves people voting those who will represent the and take decisions on their behalf
    1. The primary function of a legislature is
      A. appointing a president
      B. law making
      C. vetoing bills
      D. monitoring the judiciary
      E. re-assigning civil servants
      The correct option is B. the primary function refers to the main function of the legislature.
      12.According to Marxist theory, those who own and control the means of production in a capitalist society are
      A exploiters B. colonialists
      C. workers D. shareholders
      E. bourgeoisie
      The answer is B. Karl Marx is the father figure under socialism. He believes that capitalism is exploitive and the real income of business owners is generated by the workers but they are short changed. The business owners were called bourgeoisie and the workers are called proletariats.
      13.While political parties aim at forming a government pressure groups aim at
      a. A imposing military rule
      b. causing social unrest
      c. influencing governmental decisions
      d. controlling a nation’s economy
      e. getting workers to untie
      The answer is C. pressure group are aimed at influencing the decisions of the government while political parties are interested in controlling the government. There are different types of pressure group: Anomic pressure group which uses violence and promotional pressure group which is interested in championing a course. Others include religious, occupational pressure group.
      14.When the electorate vote for representatives who in turn vote on their behalf we say it is
      A. an indirect election B. an unfair election
      C. a rigged election D. a disputed election
      E. a biased election
      The answer is A. indirect election is an election in which the electorates vote for a group of people (electors) who in turn vote for people in elective positions
  11. An election which is conducted to fill a vacant seat in a legislature is called a
    a. by election B. general election
    C referendum D plebiscite
    E mini election.
    The answer is A. a bye election conducted to fill a vacant position. A position can be vacant if the occupant dies, resigns or was recalled.
    16.Which of the following countries does NOT operate a Federal constitution
    d. U.S.A. B. Canada
    C Nigeria D. France
    E Switzerland
    The answer is D.
  12. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that
    A. it is faster than other systems
    b. nobody can be prevented from voting
    c. it ensures the anonymity of each voter
    D.losers can ask for another secret vote extends the franchise to all adults
    The answer is C. secret ballot enables a voter cast his ballot without other voters knowing who he/she voted.
  13. Which of these statements is CORRECT about Proportional Representation?
    A. It makes the assembly representative of all citizens
    B. It is simple to operate
    C. It preserves the party system
    D. It gives the parties seats in proportion to their popular support
    E. It legalies dictatorship
    The answer is D.
    19.In a one party State
    a. A there are no free citizens
    b. communism is banned
    c. the communist party is the only legal party
    d. the ruling party is the only legal party
    e. elections to the legislature are held at the party’s conferences
    Option D is correct. There two types of one party state. Defacto which is a one party state in which the law does not preclude the participation of other political parties but the conduct of the ruling party makes it impossible but Dejure one party state is outlaws the participation of other parties.
  14. A cabinet system of government is practised in
    a.Britain and Canada
    b. Nigeria
    C.The Soviet Union
    D.All European countries including Britain
    E.The United States of America
    The answer is A.
    21.A party system made up of more than two parties may not qualify for the title of a multi-party system when
    A. the country in question has a unitary form of government
    B. the country in question has a federal form of government
    C. the parties are not competitive
    D. different parties are supported by distinct political interests
    E. the parties have identical structure
    The answer is C. a multiparty system allows for the participation of many parties which any of them are capable of forming the government.
  15. A proclamation by the Head of State ending a session of parliament is called
    A. a dissolution B. an adjournment
    C. a prorogation
    E. a devolution
    The answer is D.
    D. an abrogation
  16. The constitutions of the Federal Republic of Nigeria
    A. promotes unity in diversity
    B. allows for the dominance of the minority ethnic groups
    C. concentrates governmental power at one level of government
    D. advances the interest of the rich
    E. Ensures the dominance of one political party.
    The answer is A. note that even though democracy is a game of numbers the right of minorities are not infringed upon
  17. The transfer of authority to local government council is known as
    A demarcation B delegation
    C fusion D fragmentation
    E devolution
    The answer is E.
  18. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means that they
    A. Have a career
    B. are not the servant of a particular government
    C. are trained for the duties they performed
    D. are credited or blamed for anything they do
    E. are entitled to pension and gratuity when they retired
    The answer is D. anonymity means that the civil servants are not be seen in the public commenting on issues or fronting except being authorized. Although they formulate government policies but the government receive the blame and credit
    26.The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 were
    e. UPN, NPN, PPA, PPP, NPP and NAP
    f. NPN, UPN, NPP, PRP, PPP, and NNDP
    E. NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA.
    The answer is D. it should be noted that the party that won the 1979 and 1983 presidential election was NPN.
    27.Which if the following is NOT a pressure group in Nigeria?
    A. Farmers
    B. The Nigerian Union of Teachers (NUT)
    C. The Catholic church
    D. Academic Staff Union of Universities (ASUU)
    E. Nigeria Medical Association (NMA)
    The answer is A. pressure groups are association and option A doesn’t look like an association
    28.The N.C.N.C. sent a delegation to London in 1947 to protest against the
    h. Burns consitutions
    i. Republican Constitutions
    j. Richards Constitution
    k. Lyttleton Consitition
    l. Macpherson Consitution
    The answer is C. the operational constitution was Richards constitution
  19. A popular principle of colonial administration in
    British West Africa was
    A.association B indirect rule
    C paternalism D westernization
    E assimilation
    The answer is B. it should be noted that the indirect rule did not attempt to abolish local customs and tradition
    30.The three great Nigerian nationalists between 1950 and
    1966 were
    a. Herbert Macaulay, Nnamdi Azikiwe and Obafemi Awolowo
    b. Ahmadu Bello, Nnamdi Azikiwe and Theophilus Danjuma
    c. Obafemi Awolowo, Herbert Macaulay and Ahmadu Bello
    d. Nnamdi Azikiwe, Obafemi Awolowo and Ahmadu Bello
    e. K.O. Mbadiwe, S.L. Akintola and Herbert Macaulay
    The answer is D. it should however be noted that Herbert Macaulay was the father of Nigerian Nationalism but he died before the period mentioned.
  20. The first Governor-General of colonial Nigeria was A. Sir Hugh Clifford B. Sir James Robertson
    C. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe D. Sir Ralph Moore
    E. Lord Lugard
    The answer is E. it should be noted that lugard was the governor of the protectorate of northern Nigeria
  21. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by
    A. General Yakubu Gowon
    B. General Aguiyi Ironsi
    C. General M. Mohammed
    D. General O. Obasanjo
    E. General Hassan Katsinane
    The answer is Gen. J.T.U Aguyi Ironsi who hijacked the January 15, 1966 coup d’ tat and he was removed from office July 29, 1966 by a counter coup which claimed his life. He also issued the decree number 34 or the unification decree.
  22. The legislature in every state of the Federal Republic of Nigeria is called the
    A State National Assembly
    B. State Legislative Council C. State Traditional Council
    D House of Assembly
    E. State House of Representatives.
    The answer is D.
  23. The 1979 Nigerian Constitution is unique because it
    A. provides for a head of government
    B. introduces a participation of women in Politics
    C. provides for a head of state who is also head of government
    D. provides for a House of Chiefs
    E. makes all men equal before the law
    The answer is C. it should be noted that Nigeria started operating the presidential system in 1979 and that is the reason shehu Shagari is regarded as the first executive president of Nigeria
    35.The supreme organ of the U.N.O. is the A General Assembly B Secrectary General
    C. World Court E. World Bank
    The answer is A. it consist of the head of state or government of member nations
    36.Which Public Commission was not establsihed by the 1979 constitution?
    m. Udoji Commission
    n. Federal Electoral Commission
    o. Public ServiceCommission
    p. Public Complaint Commission
    q. National Population Commission
    The answer is A. Udoji commission was established under the Gowon regime it was to look into the salary scale or civil servants etc
    37.Local Government Reforms were carried out by the Federal Military Government in
    A.1970 B. 1976 C. 1979 D. 1967 E. 1966.
    The answer is B. the essence of the local government reform is to ensure uniformity in the operation of local governments in Nigeria.
  24. Lagos became a crown Colony in A 1900 B. 1914 C. 1886 D 1861 E 1862.
    The answer is D.
  25. Nigerian elites agitated against colonial rule A by guerrilla warfare B. By civil war
    C. through television D. Through newspapers
    E. by bribing colonial governors
    The answer is D. note in the struggle for independence Nigeria belong to the monrovial group which was peaceful about their agitation.
    40.The first political party in Nigeria was formed after the introduction of the
    A. Richards Constitution
    B. Clifford Constitution
    C. Bourdillon consitution
    D. Macpherson Consittution
    E. Lyttleton Constitution
    The answer is B. the Clifford constitution introduced the elective principle in 1922 but the first election took place in 1923.
    41 The ECOWAS treaty was signed in 1975 in
    A Accra B. Banjul C. Freetown
    D. Abidjan E. Lome
    The treaty was signed in lagos on may 28,1975 but the protocol launching took place in Lome, Togo. E is therefore a tenable answer.
  26. The major innovation of the Republican constitution of 1963 was that
    a. the Prime Minister ceased to be Head of State
    b. the Governor’s office as the representative of the Queen was abolished
    c. the Cabinet was no longer responsible to the legislature
    d. it introduced the Executive Presidential System
    e. the Prime Minister was nominated by the Executive Council
    The answer is B. the position of head of state became elective in 1963.
  27. Which of these was NOT a demand of the nationalists movements in Nigeria?
    A.Promotion of Africans to senior service positions
    B.Increase African representation in the legislative asemblies
    C.Improved conditions of service and salaries for Africa
    D.Withdrawal of Military bases from Africa
    E. Reduction of the dictatorship of colonial officers.
    The answer is D.
  28. Under the 1979 Nigerian Constitution, each state is allowed to elect
    a.two senators B. five senators many senators as the state can finance
    d.from two to five senators depending on the population of the state E. ten senators.

The answer is B. the the total senators were 95 and there were 19 states as at 1979.
45.The Independence Constitution
A. provided for a republican status for the country
B. created a unitary state
C. was negotiated by Nigerians
D. was imposed on Nigerians by the British.
E. introduced the military into Nigerian politics.
The answer is D. although there were constitutional conferences in London and lagos in 1957 and 1958 respectively but the British had the final say

  1. The first general election in Nigeria was held in A. 1933 B. 1952 C. 1955 D. 1959 E. 1964
    The answer is D.
  2. The 1979 Nigerian Constitution provides for
    Presidential elections every
    Afour years B. eight years
    C.time the military hands over the reins of government
    D.time the incubent is impeached or dies
    E.time the Vice President is impeached
    The answer is A. the president can serve two terms of four years each
  3. In Nigeria, the constitution that preserves civil liberty is the
    A. Public Complaints Commission
    B. Federal Electoral Commission
    C. Law courts
    D. National Security Organisation
    E. Police Commission
    The answer is C. the judiciary is the custodian of the constitution
    49.Nigeria became a Federation under the new constitution of 1954 became the constitution
    A. provided for equal representation between the North and the South
    B. created the post of a Prime Minister
    C. provided for a division of members of parliament
    D. provided for a division of functions between the centre and component units.
    E. abolished the practice of nominating some members of parliament.
    The answer is D. it should be noted that the Richard constitution of 1946 laid the foundation for federalism and Lyttleton constitution of 1954 rooted federalism in full
    50.The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of the
    A O.A.U B. O.P.E.C. C. U.N.O.
    D. N.A.T.O. E. E.C.O.W.A.S

The answer is C.

Lecture 3
Lecture 9
Lecture 10
Lecture 12

Watch the videos by clicking the links

Economics 1979

1. Which of the following is true of occupational distribution of the labor in West Africa? A.  a large percentage of the labor force engage in agriculture  B. agriculture is the most important occupation in west  C. the manufacturing sector employs a large percentage of the population D. agriculture does not constitute an important source of paid employment E. the public sector forms an important source of paid employment

The correct option is A. agriculture is the mainstay of many rural dwellers in West Africa and this rural dwellers account for majority of the population

2.Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A. it is possible for a densely populated country to be unpopulated if it has  inefficient labor  to make the most effective use of its   B. the quantity of labor which combined with the  factors gives minimum output C. the quantity of labor which combined with the other factors gives the maximum output is known as the optimum population D. the test of over-population is whether its exceeds the optimum E. it is possible for a thinly populated country to be over populated if it has a poor supply of other factors

The correct option is B. optimum population is a type of population that yield maximum output when combined with available resources in the country

3.Production covers all but one of the following activities A. changing the position of a good in time as, for example, holding stocks of goods until they are required B. the provision of some kind of services e.g. retailing C. changing the form of a good from raw materials to finished products D. changing the situation of a good as for example, from a factory in Lagos to a retail shop in Port Harcourt E. the use of goods and services that satisfy individual wants

The correct option is E. Production entails all activities that are involved in ensuring goods or services reach the final consumer. Note option E is consumption and not production

4.If two commodities are good substitute for one another e.g. butter and margarine, an increase in the demand for one will reduce the demand for the other. This type of demand is called A. composite demand B. elastic demand C. derived demand D. competitive demand E. inelastic demand

The correct option is D. when a commodity can serve the purpose served by another commodity, if he consumer buys one of the commodity there is no need to buy the other which in turn reduces the demand for the other one. For example meat and fish. If during a particular weekend you buy fish you may not need to by meat any more. Invariably the meat seller’s customer has reduced by one for that day.

5.One of the reasons why conditions of supply of a commodity may change is A. a change in real income B. Changes in the technique of production C. a change of fashion or taste D. change in price of the commodity itself E. changes in population

The correct option is B. The other options are the factors affecting demand and not supply. If the production method is improved upon, this may save costs for the firm and this will also lead to greater output and increase in supply

6.When the demand curve shifts to the right, it indicates that a larger quantity is demand at each price. This is caused by one of the following: A a fall in the income B. a rise in price of complement C. a falling the price of substitute D. a change in the taste against the commodity E. none of the above

The correct option is C. recall that a joint or complementary demand requires that two commodities be bought at the same time. Now for example, if we have fixed amount of 1,000 NGN to be spent and with this amount we usually buy 5 units of commodity X and 10 units of commodity Y. if the price of X increases and we want to maintain the 5 units purchased it will reduce the demand for Y. so B cannot be the answer. Option D is wrong because when the taste of a person changes against a commodity then the demand will reduce. Option A cannot be the answer because it relates to income and the question is talking about price.

7.When the price of a commodity is below the equilibrium price the quantity demanded will exceed the quantity supplied. Such a situation is referred to as A. elastic supply B. joint demand  C. excess supply D. derived demand E. none of the above

The correct option is E. the answer is excess demand which is below the equilibrium point. Recall that a consumer will always like to consume at the lowest possible price and when price is low people will want to demand in excess.

8.The central bank control the activities of other banks by all but one of the following. Which one? A. the use of bank rate B. the purchase or sale of government on the open market C. special deposits D. the use of directives E. taxation

The answer is E. Taxation is a fiscal policy tool which included government expenditure also. The policy available to the central bank is the monetary policy which include bank rate which is the rate the central bank charges commercial banks. Moral suasion which is a gentle appeal by the central bank to commercial banks. Others are open market operation (OMO), special deposit, special directives, liquidity ratio etc.

9.Which of these alternatives is wrong? Central banks are A. bankers to the government B. bankers to commercial bank C. merchant bank Controllers and regulator of the money supply E. issuer of bank notes

The answer is C. The central bank performs all the functions listed above. Note that the merchant bank is aptly referred to as a wholesaler bank and the commercial bank as retailer bank

10.The principle of comparative advantage or comparative cost is not based on one of the following assumptions A. there are restrictions in trade B. there are no costs of transport C. there is perfect competition D. there are no tariffs or import and export quota E. there are two commodities entering into international trade

The correct option is A. the theory of comparative advantage was developed by David Richardo. However this was a development on the first theory absolute advantage that was propounded by Adam Smith. The assumption included

  1. There are two countries and two commodities traded in the world
  2. There is free trade i.e. no restriction to international trade
  3. No transportation cost
  4. Labor is the only productive factor or labor theory of value

11. Which of the following is not a direct tax? A. company income tax B. capital tax C. purchase tax D. personal income tax E. capital gain tax

The answer is   C. direct taxes are taxes imposed on individual’s income, that of companies and property. They include personal income (tax imposed on individual’s income), cooperate tax (tax imposed on the profit of companies), property tax (tax imposed on a person’s property), capital gain tax (this is tax imposed on profit made on the sales of a property).

12.Division of labor means A. dividing the labor into different categories B. splitting the process of  production into different parts to be completed by each person C. dividing the goods and services into different sections D. assigning different duties of laborers E. group of laborers working in a factory or shop

The answer is B. Note division of labor involves splitting the task or process into smaller units and assigning labor various sub-division

13.By utility we mean A. usefulness B. power of satisfying a want C. beneficial D. advantageous E. consumable

The answer is B. Utility is not the same thing as usefulness something might possess utility to a consumer but might be injurious to his health e.g. cigarette

14.Which of the following is not an indirect tax? A. excise duty B. company tax C. import duty D. excise duty E. sales tax

The answer is B. indirect tax is a tax imposed on goods and services. Did you know everyone pays tax? Yes of course because the goods and services you buy are tax but you are paying it indirectly. In other words the producer is taxed directly and he includes the tax in his prices.

15.Average cost is A. the total cost of production B. the extra cost of producing one additional unit of output C. the cost of producing a unit of output D. variable costs E. overhead costs

The answer is C. the average cost is the cost of producing a unit of a commodity or say total cost per unit. It is given mathematically as AC = TC/Q

16.Opportunity cost is the A. price of scarce goods B. resources required for making a commodity C. cost of luxury goods D. accrual of financial losses by chance E. alternative that is forgone in order to satisfy a want

The answer is E. the opportunity cost is also called true cost or real cost is the forgone alternatives or the wants that are left unsatisfied.

17.The quantity supplied of a commodity increases when A. production increases B. demand increases C. price of the commodity increases D. population of the country increases E. more commodities are imported

The correct answer is B. a video link will be added for proper understanding

18.A video link will be added

19.The country will be over-populated when A. the birth rate is high B. the death rate is low C. the growth rate is high D. the population is increasing more than the resources of the country E. unemployment is high in the country

The answer is D. Note: when we are talking about over population, under population and optimum population we are comparing the population and the resources. So friends take note of this. Although the other options are tenable answers but they do not underscore the basic idea

20.The value of money is generally measured by reference to A. the interest rate charged in bank loans B. the general price level C. the size of a county ‘s gold stock D. the level of economic development in a country E. the price of stocks and shares on the stock exchange

The answer is B. the general price level shows the level of inflation and erodes the value of money today. Think deeply what 5 NGN buy around year 2005 can cannot be bought now not even sachet water. This is very important when investing money this is what is known in normal finance parlance as ‘the time value of money’

21.If the quantity demanded of a commodity increases from 20 to 30 when there is an increase in price from N4 to N5, the elasticity of demand is A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5 E. 10

The answer is C.  A video will be uploaded

22.The total value of goods and services sold and bought by a country across its border during a given period, usually a year is known as A. visible trade B. invisible trade C. balance of payments D. balance of trade E. terms of trade

The answer is D. balance of trade is the largest component in the balance of payment account.

23.Which of the following types of capital is not rewarded by means of dividends A. ordinary shares B. preference shares C. cumulative preference shares D. participating preference shares E. debenture

The answer is E. a debenture holder is a creditor to the business. Debenture occurs when a firm borrows money from an individual and this person is given a debenture certificate and entitled to an interest.

24.Which of the following is not usually the function of wholesaler? A. transport B. storage C. advertising D. after-sales service E. branding  

The answer is E. it is the duty of the producer to give the product a name and a logo etc.

25.Net national income A. gross national income minus depreciation B. gross domestic product plus net income from abroad C. nominal national income deflated by the price level D. gross national income divided by total population E . gross national product plus subsidies minus taxes

The answer is A. Note: whenever you come across the word net in National income depreciation has to be subtracted in the formula.

26.If Mr. A earns N2,000  a year while Mr. B earns N8,000  a year but Mr. A pays N200 per annum in tax while Mr. B pays N400 such a tax is A. progressive B. indirect C. regressive D. proportional E. none of the above

A video link will be uploaded

27.Which of the following is not an assets of a commercial bank? A. cash B. money at call C. treasury bills D. reserve funds E. loans and overdrafts

The answer is B. this is a short term finance for the bank in the money market. Commercial banks lend one another money and recall that money borrowed is a liability  

28.The lowering of the exchange rate between a country’s currency and other currencies is known as A. the foreign exchange rate B. deflation C. exchange control D. the law of comparative advantage E. none of the above

The answer is E. the definition above is for a concept in economics called devaluation. It is usually adopted to correct an adverse (deficit) balance of payment because it make export cheaper and import export expensive

29.When the average physical product curve is rising, the marginal physical is A. below it B. above it C. falling D. zero E. none of the above

The answer is B. see the graph below

Total Product, Average Product and Marginal Product
  • When Average Product is rising, Marginal Product lies above Average Product.
  • When Average Product is declining, Marginal Product lies below Average Product.
  • At the maximum of Average Product, Marginal and Average Product equal each other.

30.The proportion of currency in the money supply A. is higher is developing countries than advanced countries B. is lower in developing countries than advanced countries C. is the same in the both developing and advanced countries D. grows as the economy develops E. none of the above  

Option A is correct. Most developed countries have gone cashless which has significantly reduced the volume of money in circulation but developing countries still embark on cash transaction.

31.If a government is running a deficit , this means A. terms of trade are unfavorable B. more project cannot be undertaken C. tax inflows is greater than expenditure D. aggregate demand is greater than aggregate supply E. none of the above

The answer is E. a budget deficit occurs when the revenue of the government (most especially in taxes) is less than the expenditure of the government

32.Pure monopoly describes a market where A. there are many sellers and few buyers B. goods are sold at different prices C. entry is not blocked but no one cares to enter D. a few sellers and one buyer exist E. none of the above

The answer is E. a monopoly is a type of imperfect market or competition in which there is only one seller or producer with many buyers

33.Which of the following assets of a commercial does not yield revenue? A money in the tills of the bank B. money at call C. treasury certificates D. treasury bills E. bill of exchange

The answer is A. money in till are idle and bear no interest until when lent out or invested.

34.Which of the following is not a component of National Income? A wages earned by doctors B. rent paid to landlords C. indirect taxes D. undistributed company profit E. interest earned on loans

The answer is C. indirect taxes relates to personal income and not national income

35.Which of the following financial institution cannot direct loans to individuals? A. the agricultural bank B. the industrial bank C. the central bank D. the co-operative bank E. the standard bank

The answer is C. The central bank does not transact with the public.

36.An ad-valorem tax means A. total amount an income tax B. a certain percentage tax on the volume of commodity D. a tax on capital gains E. a profit tax

The answer is B. it a type of tax imposed based on the value of the property. The other tax is specific tax which is imposed regardless of the value of the property.

37.The foreign exchange rate of a country is A. the interest rate fixed by the central bank B. the price of one national currency in terms of another C. the rate at which the central bank issues money D. the rate of interest on government bond E. none of the above

The answer is B. the foreign exchange the price of one currency in terms of one currency. In other words how much of one currency is needed to have unit of the other currency

38.The “terms of trade” means A. the trade agreement between two countries B. the difference in the volume of exports of two countries C. the value of a unit of export in relation to the value of a unit of import D. the proportion of the value of exports to the value of total trade E. none of the above

The answer is C. terms of trade is the rate at which a countries export exchange for its import. In other words how much locally produced goods do we need to give out for us to have certain volume of imported goods

39.Which is the most liquid of the following financial assets held by an individual? A. outstanding balance on the current account of a commercial bank B. a credit balance on a savings account C. a crossed postal order D. an insurance policy E. all the above

The answer is B. Liquidity of assets simply refers to how quickly the assets can be converted into cash. Of course a saving account is a demand deposit account which can be withdrawn at any time that makes it the most liquid

40.The price mechanism A. regulates supply and demand B. rations the consumers C. rewards the producers D. allocates scarce resources E. does all of the above

The answer is D. the price mechanism is also called price system and it helps to allocate scarce resources among competing ends

41.When marginal cost equals marginal revenue product A. the firm is producing at a loss B. the firm is at the breakeven point C. the firm us making at least profit D. the supplementary cost of the firm is highest E. the firm has maximum profit

The answer is B. the point where the extra cost of producing one more unit is equal to the amount earned by selling one extra unit is the break–even point i.e. where the firm is not incurring a loss and it is not making profit

42.A video link will be added

43.Disposable income equals A. personal income less business profit B. personal income less taxes and subsidies C. national income less borrowing from abroad D. national income plus transfer payments E. personal income less taxes plus subsidies

The answer is E. disposable income is the income available to individuals after deducting direct taxes and adding subsidies (subsidy reduces the amount spent on an essential commodity)

44.What do we call a market where there is a large number of buyers and sellers such that no one has an appreciable influence on prices? A. free market B. perfectly competitive market C. controlled market D. stock exchange market E. open market

The answer is B. a perfect competition is a market where there are many buyers and sellers of a commodity and there is no single participant (buyer and seller) capable of influencing the price.

45.A typical corporate form of business organization is owned by A. presidents of the country B. shareholders C. the general manager and the executives of the business concern D. a local government E. foreigners and citizens of the country

The answer is B. A company is owned by shareholders but managed by the board of directors.

46.The burden of tax on a commodity whose demand is infinitely inelastic A. is zero B. will be borne by seller alone C. will be borne by buyer alone D. will be borne by both seller and buyer  E. is impossible to tell who bears it

The answer is C. goods that have price inelastic demand are goods the consumer can do without. Therefore when a commodity is inelastic, the tax burden is borne by both the buyer and the seller but the buyer bears more and if is perfectly or infinitely inelastic the buyer bears the price burden alone

47.The predominance of non-working wives and housemaids in west Africa A. will underestimate the national income of the countries B. will overestimate the national income of the countries C. will lead to constant per capita income over the years D. will lead to balance of payment deficits E. will cause unfavorable terms of trade

The answer is A. these are one of the activities classified as non-marketable activities

48.Inflation can be curbed by A. increasing aggregate demand B. paying higher wages C. increasing government expenditure D. reducing aggregate demand E. a deficit budget

The answer is the D. The idea behind this question is the option that doesn’t increase the money in circulation

49.In most cases the marginal utility derived from a particular good A. increases as additional units are consumed B. paying  higher wages C. decreases at a constant rate as additional units are consumed D. decreases additional units are consumed E. remains constant as additional units are consumed

The answer is D. This is testing your knowledge of the law of diminishing marginal utility

50.Infant industries are A. baby food and baby clothing factories B. those which are introducing new products C. cases of arrested development  D. industries temporarily protected by tariff barriers until mature enough to compete on world market E. industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence

The answer is D. infant industries are newly established industries that do not have a solid footing to compete with existing industries and are therefore protected by the government